EOC Review
Biology
1. What tool can most accurately determine
the volume of a sample of water?
–
–
–
–
Graduated Cylinder
Balance
Spring Scale
Thermometer
2.
Francis observes that corn seedlings will bend toward
a light source. He grows 150 corn seedlings. He then
removes the tips from 50 seedlings, covers the tips of
another 50 seedlings with aluminum foil, and leaves
the last 50 seedlings alone. He puts all the seedlings
near a strong light source and observes them for three
days. Which hypothesis is Francis testing?
–
–
–
–
If a seedling is watered, it will always grow toward the light.
If a seedling is exposed to a light source, the seedling will
bend toward the light.
If the tip is removed from a seedling, the seedling will die even
if exposed to light.
If light does not reach the tip of a seedling, the seedling will not
bend toward the light.
3.
Which of these is an example of a
qualitative observation?
– The high temperature for each day in May.
– The names of chemicals found in one brand
of diet soda.
– The win-loss record of a tennis team since
1990.
– The average growth in height of all
sophomores over a year.
4. In 1927, the geneticist Hermann Muller exposed living
fruit flies to X-rays. He found that the fruit flies’ offspring
displayed dramatic mutations. Muller concluded that the
X-rays damaged chromosomes, which resulted in the
mutations. What was the independent variable in
Muller’s experiment?
–
–
–
–
The X-rays
The fruit flies
The mutations
The chromosomes
5. A student is curious about whether a relationship exists
between the temperature of an aquarium’s water and the
number of times a fish’s gills flap each minute. What is
the first thing that the student should do?
– Lower the temperature in the tank by 1oC each day and see how
it affects the number of times a fish’s gills flap each minute.
– Make a hypothesis about the relationship between water
temperature and the number of times a fish’s gills flap each
minute.
– At exactly the same time each day, count the number of times a
fish’s gills flap each minute.
– Take readings of the water temperature in the aquarium in the
morning, in the afternoon, and in the evening.
6.
Which of the following fundamental
units does the Systéme International
not use?
– kg
– mL
– in.
– cm
7. April wants to test how temperature affects germination
(plant growth from seeds). She is measuring
temperature in degrees Celsius (0C). Which should April
measure to get the most useful results?
– The growth of plants from 150 seeds at 150C and 150 seeds at
220C.
– The growth of plants from 300 seeds, all at slightly different
temperatures.
– The growth of plants from 100 seeds at 150C, 100 seeds at
220C, and 100 seeds at 290C.
– The growth of plants from 150 seeds in the dark at 150C and 150
seeds in the light at 150C.
8. A scientist who monitors drinking water supplies found the diseasecausing organism Cryptosporidium parvum to be resistant to the
common disinfectants chlorine and monochloramine. The scientist
investigated whether chlorine dioxide would be more effective
against C.parvum. She designed an experiment in which she added
chlorine, monochloramine, and chlorine dioxide to separate water
samples. She then tested the water for populations of C.parvum.
Which hypothesis was the scientist most likely testing in this
experiment?
– If chlorine and monochloramine are added to drinking water, they
will be more effective than chlorine alone against C.parvum.
– If chlorine dioxide is added to drinking water, it will be more
effective than either chlorine or monochloramine against
C.parvum.
– If C.parvum becomes resistant to chlorine dioxide over time, it
will not become resistant to chlorine or to monochloramine.
– If C.parvum is resistant to chlorine and monochloramine, it will
become resistant to chlorine dioxide over time.
9.
The following data set shows the
amount of rainfall for each day of one
week.
– 5 mL, 13 mL, 2 mL, 6 mL, 5 mL, 7 mL, 11 mL
• What is the mean of this data set?
– 5 mL
– 7 mL
– 8 mL
– 9 mL
10. Fred is preparing a class presentation
about the change in the classroom’s
temperature over one week. Which would
be the best way for Fred to display his
data?
– In a line graph
– In a chart
– In a bar graph
– In a table
11. There are 16 students in the chess
club. Of these students, 4 are new
members. What percent of the chess club
is new members?
– 4%
– 20%
– 25%
– 33%
12. Use the graph on the previous slide to answer the following
questions:
Ladybugs eat insects called aphids to survive. A biologist puts a
population of ladybugs and a population of aphids into an enclosed
habitat called a terrarium. She wants to study how a change in one
population affects the other population. She lets the community
develop for a time, and then introduces a chemical that makes the
aphids unable to produce offspring. The graph shows the changes
to the ladybug and aphid populations over time.
•
What is the dependent variable in the biologist’s
experiment?
–
–
–
–
The length of time
The size of the aphid population
The size of the ladybug population
The amount of sterilizing chemical
•
Use the previous graph to answer the following
question:
13. Which conclusion best describes the
relationship between the ladybug and the
aphid populations?
•
•
•
•
A decrease in the aphid population causes a
decrease in the ladybug population.
An increase in the aphid population causes a
decrease in the ladybug population.
An increase in the ladybug population causes an
increase in the aphid population.
A decrease in the ladybug population causes a
decrease in the aphid population
14.
A team of biologists measured the levels of
dissolved oxygen at different depths in three lakes.
There results are shown below.
• Which of these proposed explanations is supported by
the data table?
– The depth has no effect on the level of oxygen concentration.
– Forest Lake has a greater oxygen concentration than Cobble
Lake.
– The oxygen concentration of the water is greater at deeper
depths.
– The oxygen concentration of the water is greater at shallower
depths.
15. Which of these is an example of how science
can influence public policy?
– A local citizen’ action group raises money to plant
trees in a public park.
– Because of limited local landfill space, the city council
considers shipping trash elsewhere.
– Discoveries about the harmful side effects of
secondhand cigarette smoke prompt the passing of
laws that ban smoking in public places.
– Because too much chlorine is accidentally put into a
public swimming pool, the pool is closed for the
afternoon to protect the public.
16. Why is the process of peer review so
important to the overall practice of science?
– Peer review helps to identify error and bias in
experiments and research.
– Peer review leads to the recognition of a scientist’s
accomplishments.
– Peer review helps one scientist prove that other
scientists are wrong.
– Peer review helps to ensure that nobody else is
credited with a scientist’s discovery.
17. Most professionals, such as doctors,
lawyers, and scientists, follow codes of ethics
that guide the actions of the people in that
profession. Which is the best description of the
phrase “a code of professional ethics”?
– It is a cultural characteristic of one specific group of
people.
– It is a standard of conduct for a given occupation.
– It is based on a certain type of religion.
– It is what society accepts as right.
18. Which of these is the most accurate
statement about the effects of technology?
– Products of new technology cost more than products
of old technology.
– New technology is always welcome and accepted by
the public.
– New technology can make it possible for scientists to
extend research and make new discoveries.
– New technology always ends up replacing old
technology because it is more efficient.
19. A bias can distort science at any stage of the
process: hypothesis formation, experimentation,
interpretation of results, or reporting. Which of
these best describes how bias affects scientific
research?
– Any investigation that has a bias in inevitably ruined.
– The best scientists can do their work without any bias
at all.
– Acknowledging bias is not important because
everyone has a bias.
– All scientists have biases, but most scientists attempt
to reduce its effects on their work.
20. What role does bias play in the way that
scientific stories are presented by the news
media?
– Because the story appears in print or on television, it
must be true.
– The news media should not report science stories
because they are not experts.
– The news media doesn’t have any bias because all of
their stories are researched thoroughly.
– Every news story includes bias, so you should
compare information from a variety of sources.
21. Which of the following is true about
eukaryotic cells?
– Eukaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane and more
types of organelles than prokaryotic cells
– Eukaryotic cells have a nuclear membrane and fewer
types of organelles than prokaryotic cells
– Eukaryotic cells have no nuclear membrane and more
types of organelles than prokaryotic cells
– Eukaryotic cells have no nuclear membrane and
fewer types of organelles than prokaryotic cells
22. Stomach cells break down food particles into
their component molecules to aid in digestion.
Which of these organelles would be found in a
higher frequency in stomach cells than in red
blood cells?
–
–
–
–
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
Chloroplasts
Ribosomes
23. Suppose that a freshwater plant is
mistakenly put into a saltwater aquarium. Which
process will occur?
– Water will move from the environment into the plant
cells, swelling the plant cells.
– Water will move from the plant cells into the
environment, shrinking the plant cells
– Salt will move from the plant cells into the
environment, shrinking the plant cells.
– Salt will move from the environment into the plant
cells, swelling the plant cells.
24. Which correctly describes a major difference
between a plant cell and an animal cell.
– An animal cell has organelles that store energy in ATP
molecules, a plant cell does not.
– A plant cell has many small vacuoles that store water,
an animal cell has a single large vacuole to store
wastes.
– An animal cell has a cell wall to provide structure and
support; a plant cell does not.
– A plant cell has organelles that transform light energy
into chemical energy; an animal cell does not.
25. Examine the two solutions below. They are
separated by a semipermeable membrane that
allows salt to pass but does not allow starch to
pass.
–
–
–
–
Salt will move from B to A by diffusion.
Salt will move from B to A by osmosis.
Salt will move form A to B by diffusion.
Salt will move from A to B by osmosis.
26. Membranes are essential to life processes.
Which of the following best defines a
membrane?
–
–
–
–
Membranes are phospholipid bilayers.
Membranes are selectively permeable barriers.
Membranes are the sites of energy transformations.
Membranes are barriers that protect organelles from
outside substances.
27. Muscle groups often require quick bursts of
energy. Which organelle would be found in a
higher frequency in muscle cells than in nerve
cells?
–
–
–
–
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria
Peroxisomes
28. Glucose belongs to which category of
organic compound?
–
–
–
–
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Proteins
29. Which of these is not a difference between
mitosis and meiosis?
– Mitosis results in two cells; meiosis results in four.
– Mitosis is a form of asexual reproduction; meiosis is a
form of sexual reproduction.
– Mitosis produces cells with a full set of chromosomes;
meiosis produces cells with a half set of
chromosomes.
– Mitosis occurs only in unicellular organisms such as
paramecia; meiosis occurs only in multicellular
organisms such as humans.
30. The American buffalo has cells containing 60
chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in
each sperm cell of an American buffalo?
–
–
–
–
120
60
30
15
• 31. Which sex will a person be if the father has
contributed on X chromosome?
–
–
–
–
Male, no matter what
Female, no matter what
Male, if the mother contributes an X
Female, if the mother contributes a Y
• 32. Which of these is an advantage of sexual
reproduction?
– It creates variation within a population.
– It creates offspring that are well-adapted to the
environment.
– It creates offspring that are identical to its parents.
– It ensures no variation within a population.
• 33. Which of these
correctly represents
the process of
meiosis?
34. DNA molecules must unwind and then
separate for replication and expression. Which
of these happens when a DNA molecule comes
apart?
– The weak bonds within the sugar-phosphate
backbone are broken.
– The strong bonds within the sugar-phosphate
backbone are broken.
– The weak bonds between the nitrogenous base pairs
are broken.
– The strong bonds between the nitrogenous base pairs
are broken.
35. When the genes encoded in
deoxyribonucleic acid are expressed, what type
of molecule is produced?
–
–
–
–
DNA
Carbohydrate
Phospholipid
Protein
36. Which of the following gives the most
accurate description of the gene expression
process?
37. A double-stranded segment of DNA is 50
nucleotides long along each strand. Thirty of the
bases are adenine. How many of the bases are
cytosine?
–
–
–
–
20
30
50
80
38. Suppose that a point mutation inserts a
thymine base into a DNA strand as shown
below.
– TAA GGT ACG CAT
T
• Which represents the DNA strand that is
complementary to the first 12 bases of the
mutated strand?
–
–
–
–
ATT CCA TAG CGT
AUU CCA UAG CGU
ATT CCA TGC GTA
AUU CCA UGC GUA
39. What is the correct relationship between an
allele and a gene?
–
–
–
–
Alleles dictate which genes go into offspring
Alleles are the alternative forms a gene can take
Genes are the physical form of allele combinations
Combinations of dominant genes result in an allele
40. A brown-eyed man and a blue eyed woman
have four children. The man is heterozygous
dominant for brown eyes (Bb), and the woman is
homozygous recessive for blue eyes (bb).
• As a percentage, how many of the children are
expected to have blue eyes?
–
–
–
–
0%
25%
50%
75%
41. Which genotype is homozygous for one trait
and heterozygous for another trait?
–
–
–
–
eemm
EEMM
EeMm
Eemm
42.
For mice, the gene for coat color has two forms: a
pigmented coat (C) and an albino coat (c). Pete, a male
mouse with a pigmented coat, was mated with Theresa,
an albino female. All six baby mice in the first litter had
pigmented coats. For the next litter, Theresa was mated
with Moe, who had pigmented coat. Some of Theresa
and Moe’s litter were albinos. What are the most
probable genotypes of Pete, Theresa, and Moe?
–
–
–
–
Pete= Cc; Theresa= cc; Moe= cc
Pete= CC; Theresa= cc; Moe= Cc
Pete= Cc; Theresa= cc; Moe= Cc
Pete= CC; Theresa= Cc; Moe= Cc
43.
The phenotype pedigree shows the inheritance
pattern of a recessive genetic condition in three
generations of a family.
• What is the chance that individual III-1 (?) will inherit this
condition?
–
–
–
–
0
¼
½
¾
44. What would most likely happen to one
population of a species of plant if its climate
gradually became hotter and drier?
– The plants that absorb and store water most
efficiently would survive to pass on those traits.
– Individual plants would work hard to grow longer roots
and thicker leaves.
– The plants would increase the number of seeds they
make to improve their chances of reproducing.
– All of the plants would die off before producing
offspring.
• 45. Biologists are unsure how the North American red
wolf is related to the gray wolf and the coyote. Some
biologists claim that the red wolf existed as a species
before both the gray wolf and coyote. Other biologists
make the competing claim that the red wolf is a
descendant of both the gray wolf and the coyote. Which
evidence would best support the claim that the red wolf
existed before the gray wolf and the coyote?
– Fossils of all three species found in the same layer of rock.
– Different mating behaviors among all three species.
– Similar body plans among red wolves and gray wolves but not
among red wolves and coyotes.
– The DNA sequences of the gray wolf and the coyote are more
similar to each other than to the red wolf.
• 46. A biologist studied a species of katydid, an insect that makes a
“singing” noise. The biologist hypothesized that katydids with loud
songs have greater reproductive success than katydids with quiet
songs. The biologist put 25 katydids with loud songs and 25 katydids
with quiet songs into a terrarium. The biologist then studied the
generations of katydids that followed. If the biologist’s hypothesis is
correct, which result was most likely observed?
– Katydids with quiet songs became more competitive by
developing louder songs.
– The percentage of katydid population with loud songs
decreased.
– The percentage of the katydid population with quiet songs
decreased.
– Katydids that had loud songs preferred to mate with katydids that
had quiet songs.
• 47. Which of these would serve as the best
index fossil?
– A species of marine animal that lived almost
everywhere, but only during a relatively short period
of time.
– A species of coral that lived only at the equator during
a relatively brief period of time.
– A species of dinosaur that lived only in North America
just before a mass extinction.
– A species of marine plant that lived during a relatively
long period of time.
• 48. Which statement is true about the carbon
and nitrogen cycles?
– Carbon and nitrogen are often converted into each
other as they cycle through the ecosystems.
– The total mass of carbon and the total mass of
nitrogen on Earth are always about constant.
– No products created with carbon or nitrogen can be
converted into energy while cycling through
ecosystems.
– Carbon and nitrogen atoms in biotic factors tend to
stay in biotic factors, and carbon and nitrogen atoms
in abiotic factors tend to stay in abiotic factors.
• 49. Study the food chain.
• Which trophic level contains
the most energy that is available
to the level above it?
–
–
–
–
Fish
Squid
Killer whales
phytoplankton
• 50. What is the primary purpose of cellular
respiration?
–
–
–
–
To use sunlight to produce food molecules
To remove carbon dioxide from an organism
To release energy from food molecules
To bring oxygen into an organism
• 51. Suppose a lawn in Missouri absorbs 50,000
KJ of solar energy. About how much of this
energy is available to rabbits that nibble on the
lawn?
–
–
–
–
50,000 KJ
5,000 KJ
500 KJ
50 KJ
• 52. Which type of organisms make up the
producer level of the trophic pyramid?
–
–
–
–
Autotrophs
Herbivores
Carnivores
Omnivores
• 53. Which of the following is produced by
photosynthesis?
–
–
–
–
Carbon dioxide
Nitrates
Oxygen
Water
• 54. Study the simplified nitrogen cycle below.
• What process or organism is represented by
each X?
–
–
–
–
Decomposition
Consumer reuse
Eukaryotes
Bacteria
• 55. The United States government has
regulations that control how trees must be
harvested. Why is the government involved in
making such rules for logging?
– Voters believe the government should protect forest
ecosystems from industrial damage.
– The government wants to help industries harvest
trees in the most efficient was possible.
– Many trees are in inaccessible mountainous areas,
and voters want to reduce fatalities form loggers
harvesting those trees.
– The government owns forests and distributes trees to
companies for logging.
• 56. Many human activities affect ecosystems. Of
all the human actions that affect the world’s
ecosystems, which has had the greatest
negative effect in the last century?
–
–
–
–
Harvesting of crops
Rapid human population growth
Development of renewable fuels
Moving to the top of the trophic pyramid
• 57. Which of these is not an example of a
symbiotic relationship?
–
–
–
–
Bacteria living on the roots of a legume
A bird perching on the back of an antelope
A tick living on and feeding from a mule
A wolf killing a mouse
• 58. Which of these would increase a population
of deer in a habitat?
–
–
–
–
A decline in the number of deer predators
An increase in the rate of deer emigration
A decline in the rate of deer immigration
An increase in the mortality rate of deer
• 59. If bacteria are grown in a test tube, the
number of bacteria will reach a certain level and
then increase no further. What does this
demonstrate?
–
–
–
–
Biotic potential
Carrying capacity
Symbiosis
Emigration
• 60. The emerald ash borer is native to Asia. It was found
in North America in 2002, probably having traveled here
in the packing material used to protect goods shipped
overseas. Since arriving, the emerald ash borer
population has exploded. The insects have killed more
than 20 million ash trees in the Midwest. Which of these
is the most likely explanation for the success of the
emerald ash borer in North America?
– The ash trees in North America are more nutritious than those in
Asia.
– People are encouraging the growth of the new species in North
America.
– Asian ash trees have less resistance to insects than do North
American ash trees.
– The emerald ash borer has fewer predators in North American
than in Asia.